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First, I want to compliment the authors on a well written and interesting article! I would also like clarification of the following sentence:

And though there has been a great deal of argument about the relative weights that reason and observation should have, as well as significant refinements in both logic and observational methods, philosophers for two and a half centuries are basically united in the use of the very method of the pre-Socratics.

To which two and a half centuries are you refering? Or do you mean the two and a half millenia since the Pre-Socratics?

--Matt Stoker


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Last edited August 16, 2001 1:50 pm (diff)
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