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# Quantum Mechanics/Talk

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     Why "set of theories" rather than theory ? Is it just me or
     does this page not read very well to everyone else?

  I don't particularly like it either. Can any expert step forward?

What's the definition of "rigorous" used to ascribe publication of the first "rigorous" mathematical description of quantum mechanics to John von Neumann? Perhaps a literature citation would be helpful here. Had Schroedinger, Heisenberg, or others not published earlier? Or, had they published, what mathematical rigor was lacking from their contributions?

--JoeAnderson

Is von Neumann's "rigourous math" (self adjoint densely defined operators on complex separable Hilbert spaces) explained on a wikipedia page somewhere? If so, it should be crosslinked with the pages for Hilbert space and Complex number. --AxelBoldt

We do not "perceive probabilities", as said in the sentence about many-worlds; this is a nonsensical claim. "We perceive non-deterministic behaviour described by probabilities" is better. Any objections? -- AV

  None from here. --AxelBoldt

"However, let's remember that transistors and their succesors the [integrated circuit]?s, of which current computers are made, are based on a quantum effect, the [tunnel effect]?. All electronics is in this way an application of quantum mechanics."

I think it is unfair to describe [thermionic valve]?s, which are electronic devices, as an application of QM. Electromagnetic relays are also electronic devices not based on QM. People still make audio amplifiers from thermionic valves, so the statement isn't even true of modern electronic devices. --drj

I beleive that quantum tunneling transistors are a special and rarely used device not developed until the 1980's. Ordinary transistors in electronics do not use quantum tunneling effect. Anyone else know? --rmhermen

Er, I think ordinary semiconductor transistors used band-gap effect? which is a QM effect, just no tunneling. --drj

  Quantum mechanics has provoked a strong philosophical debate. The fundamental problem is that causality and determinism is lost: while the probability distributions evolve according to a well established deterministic law, the values of the observables themselves do not. Because of this, Albert Einstein held that quantum mechanics must be incomplete.

It would be helpful to try to give some basic explanation of why Einstein's view is widely held to be incorrect--his view seems like common sense, but common sense is often wrong, as theoretical physicists enjoy pointing out. So, why is it wrong, in this case? By the way, please don't answer this question on the /Talk page--please put the answer on the QM page. Thanks in advance! --LMS

It's not entirely clear that Einstein was wrong on all counts, just wrong on at least one of them. :-) The Bell's-inequality experiments of Aspect prove beyond any doubt that either (1) Observable effects exist that cannot be deterministic results of inherent properties of matter; or (2) The universe is non-local; i.e., physical effects can propogate faster than light. Nobody knows which. --LDC

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